Value and Returns: Time Value of Money, Valuation of Bonds and Shares, Risk and Return, Capital Budgeting and Dividend Theories

Unit 5 is the investment side of corporate finance. It begins with the time value of money, applies it to bonds and shares, adds risk and return through portfolio theory and the CAPM, then turns to capital budgeting — the methods, their comparison and the treatment of risk — and to dividend policy. The paper sets these as small calculations and as theory-to-author matching; this chapter gives every formula with one worked figure and every theory with its author and its conclusion, in the order the syllabus lists them.

1. Time preference for money; valuation of bonds and shares

A rupee today is worth more than a rupee tomorrow because it can be invested, because of inflation, and because the future is uncertain — the time preference for money, expressed as a required rate of return. Compounding carries a present sum forward: FV = PV(1 + r)^n; discounting brings a future sum back: PV = FV ÷ (1 + r)^n, and the factor 1/(1 + r)^n is the present value interest factor. An annuity is a level stream for n periods: PV = A × [1 − (1 + r)^−n] ÷ r, FV = A × [(1 + r)^n − 1] ÷ r; an annuity due is paid at the start of each period and is worth (1 + r) times the ordinary annuity; a perpetuity is PV = A ÷ r and a growing perpetuity PV = A1 ÷ (r − g). The effective annual rate exceeds the nominal rate when compounding is more frequent than yearly: EAR = (1 + r/m)^m − 1, and continuous compounding gives e^r − 1. The rule of 72 says money doubles in about 72 ÷ r years; a sinking fund is the annuity that accumulates to a target; loan amortisation is the annuity whose present value is the loan, with early instalments mostly interest.

Valuation of bonds and shares
SecurityValueRelations and terms
Coupon bondPresent value of coupons as an annuity plus present value of face value at maturity, discounted at the required yield: B0 = Σ C/(1 + kd)^t + F/(1 + kd)^nYield above coupon means price below par (discount), yield below coupon means premium; price and yield move inversely; longer maturity and lower coupon mean greater price sensitivity (duration); yield to maturity is the IRR of the bond's cash flows, approximated by [C + (F − P)/n] ÷ [(F + P)/2]; current yield = C ÷ P; Malkiel's five theorems
Zero-coupon and perpetual bondsZero: B0 = F/(1 + kd)^n; perpetual: B0 = C/kdA zero-coupon bond has duration equal to its maturity and no reinvestment risk
Preference shareIrredeemable: P0 = Dp/kp; redeemable: like a bond with dividend as couponDividend is fixed but not tax-deductible to the company
Equity share — dividend discount modelsZero growth: P0 = D/ke; constant growth (Gordon): P0 = D1/(ke − g) = D0(1 + g)/(ke − g), valid only when ke > g; two-stage: PV of high-growth dividends plus PV of the terminal value D(n+1)/(ke − g) at year ng = retention ratio × return on equity (the sustainable growth rate); Gordon's model gives ke = D1/P0 + g, the dividend-yield-plus-growth cost of equity; dividend growth models undervalue non-dividend growth firms
Equity share — other approachesEarnings multiple: P0 = EPS × P/E; free-cash-flow-to-equity discounting; book value per share; liquidation value; replacement cost; relative valuation by EV/EBITDA and price-to-bookIntrinsic value above market price signals 'buy'; the efficient market hypothesis (Fama) says prices already reflect information in weak, semi-strong and strong forms
🧠 Gordon in numbers
A share just paid a dividend of 4 rupees, dividends grow at 5% and investors require 13%. D1 = 4 × 1.05 = 4.20; P0 = 4.20 ÷ (0.13 − 0.05) = 52.50. The two traps: using D0 instead of D1 (which gives 50), and forgetting that the model breaks down when g ≥ ke. If the share trades at 60 it is overvalued on this model — the market is pricing in more growth or less risk.

2. Risk and return

Return over a holding period is (income + price change) ÷ beginning price; expected return is the probability-weighted average of possible returns, Σ p_i R_i; risk is the dispersion of returns around the expectation, measured by variance Σ p_i (R_i − E(R))^2 and its square root the standard deviation, and — to compare investments of different size — the coefficient of variation, SD ÷ mean. Risk divides into systematic (market, non-diversifiable — interest rates, inflation, recession, war — measured by beta) and unsystematic (specific, diversifiable — a strike, a product failure, a lawsuit); a portfolio of about fifteen to twenty uncorrelated stocks removes most unsystematic risk, so the market rewards only systematic risk. Markowitz's portfolio theory (1952) shows that the risk of a two-asset portfolio, σp^2 = w1^2 σ1^2 + w2^2 σ2^2 + 2 w1 w2 ρ12 σ1 σ2, is below the weighted average of the individual risks whenever the correlation ρ is less than +1, and can be eliminated entirely at ρ = −1; the efficient frontier is the set of portfolios with the highest return for each level of risk, and the investor chooses on it by their utility. Adding a risk-free asset gives the capital market line, and the tangency portfolio is the market portfolio.

CAPM and APT
ModelEquationContent and criticism
Capital asset pricing model (Sharpe, Lintner, Mossin, 1964–66)E(Ri) = Rf + βi [E(Rm) − Rf], the security market line; βi = Cov(Ri, Rm) ÷ Var(Rm); the market's beta is 1, the risk-free asset's 0Only systematic risk is priced; a security above the SML is under-priced (positive alpha); assumptions — mean-variance investors, one period, homogeneous expectations, borrowing and lending at Rf, no taxes or transaction costs; Roll's critique that the market portfolio is unobservable; Fama and French's three factors (size, value) and the low-beta anomaly
Arbitrage pricing theory (Ross, 1976)E(Ri) = Rf + βi1 λ1 + βi2 λ2 + … + βik λk, one sensitivity and one risk premium per macroeconomic factorMulti-factor; rests on no-arbitrage rather than on investor utility and the market portfolio; factors — industrial production, inflation, term spread, default spread (Chen, Roll and Ross) — are not specified by the theory, which is its weakness; CAPM is the one-factor special case
Performance measuresSharpe ratio (Rp − Rf) ÷ σp; Treynor ratio (Rp − Rf) ÷ βp; Jensen's alpha Rp − [Rf + βp(Rm − Rf)]Sharpe uses total risk, Treynor and Jensen systematic risk; a positive alpha beats the CAPM benchmark
🧠 CAPM in numbers
Risk-free 6%, market return 14%, beta 1.5: required return = 6 + 1.5 × (14 − 6) = 18%. If the share is expected to return 20% it lies above the SML and is under-priced — buy. A beta of 0.5 gives 10%; a beta of exactly 1 gives the market return. The market risk premium is (Rm − Rf) = 8%, not Rm.

3. Capital budgeting: nature, evaluation methods, their comparison, and risk and uncertainty analysis

Capital budgeting is the process of evaluating and selecting long-term investments whose benefits extend beyond a year — expansion, replacement and modernisation, diversification, research and development, and statutory or strategic projects. Investment decisions are large, largely irreversible, long-lived and risky, and they shape the firm's cost structure and competitive position, which is why they are taken at the top. Proposals are independent, mutually exclusive (accepting one rejects the others) or contingent. The cash flows relevant to appraisal are incremental, after tax, and ignore sunk costs and allocated overheads but include opportunity costs and working-capital changes: initial outlay (cost plus installation plus working capital less proceeds and tax effects of the old asset), annual operating cash flows (EBIT(1 − t) + depreciation, or PAT + depreciation + interest(1 − t) when financing charges are kept out), and terminal flows (salvage after tax and recovery of working capital). Financing costs are excluded because they are in the discount rate.

Evaluation methods, with a worked project: outlay 1,00,000; cash inflows 40,000 a year for four years; cost of capital 10%
MethodRuleWorked figureMerits and limits
Payback periodYears to recover the outlay; accept if below the target2.5 yearsSimple, favours liquidity; ignores time value and flows after payback; discounted payback fixes the first
Accounting (average) rate of returnAverage annual PAT ÷ average (or initial) investment; accept if above targetProfit 15,000 (after 25,000 depreciation) ÷ 50,000 average = 30%Uses accounting profit not cash; ignores time value
Net present valuePV of inflows − PV of outflows at the cost of capital; accept if NPV > 0; rank by NPV40,000 × 3.170 = 1,26,800 − 1,00,000 = 26,800Theoretically best — absolute wealth added, value-additive, reinvestment at the cost of capital; needs the discount rate; favours large projects
Profitability index (benefit-cost ratio)PV of inflows ÷ PV of outlay; accept if > 11,26,800 ÷ 1,00,000 = 1.268Relative measure, useful under capital rationing; can conflict with NPV for mutually exclusive projects of different size
Internal rate of returnThe discount rate at which NPV = 0, found by trial and interpolation; accept if IRR > cost of capitalAnnuity factor 2.5 for four years lies between 21% (2.540) and 22% (2.494): IRR ≈ 21.9%Intuitive percentage; assumes reinvestment at the IRR; multiple IRRs with non-conventional flows; can mis-rank mutually exclusive projects; modified IRR (MIRR) reinvests at the cost of capital and fixes both
⚠️ When NPV and IRR disagree, NPV wins
For a single conventional project NPV and IRR always agree — NPV is positive exactly when IRR exceeds the cost of capital. They can rank mutually exclusive projects differently when the projects differ in scale, in the timing of cash flows (one front-loaded, one back-loaded) or in life; the NPV profiles then cross at Fisher's rate, and above it the rankings reverse. NPV is preferred because it measures the absolute wealth added, assumes reinvestment at the realistic cost of capital and is additive across projects; IRR's reinvestment assumption flatters projects with early flows. Under capital rationing the profitability index or, for indivisible projects, the combination that maximises total NPV is used.

Risk in capital budgeting is the variability of a project's returns; uncertainty is the case where even the probabilities are unknown. The techniques divide into those that adjust the discount rate or the cash flows and those that describe the distribution. The risk-adjusted discount rate adds a premium to the cost of capital for riskier projects — simple, but it compounds the penalty over time and treats risk as growing with time. The certainty-equivalent approach multiplies each risky cash flow by a coefficient between 0 and 1 and discounts at the risk-free rate — theoretically cleaner because it separates time from risk. Sensitivity analysis changes one variable at a time — price, volume, cost, life — to find which the NPV is most sensitive to; scenario analysis changes several together in optimistic, most-likely and pessimistic cases; break-even analysis finds the sales at which NPV is zero. Probability analysis assigns probabilities and computes the expected NPV and its standard deviation, from which the probability of a negative NPV can be read; Hillier's model handles correlated flows over time. Simulation (Monte Carlo, Hertz 1964) draws thousands of combinations from the input distributions to build the NPV distribution. Decision-tree analysis lays out sequential decisions and chance events, values from the end backward by expected NPV, and prices the option to abandon or expand — the root of real options analysis, which values flexibility (defer, expand, contract, abandon, switch) with option-pricing methods. Shorter payback and conservative forecasts are the informal methods.

4. Dividend: theories and determination

Dividend theories: does the payout affect share value?
TheoryAuthorModel and conclusion
Walter's model (relevance)James Walter, 1956P = [D + (r/ke)(E − D)] ÷ ke, where r is the return on retained earnings; a growth firm (r > ke) should retain everything (optimum payout 0%), a declining firm (r < ke) should pay out everything (100%), a normal firm (r = ke) is indifferent; assumes all-equity financing and constant r and ke
Gordon's model (relevance; bird-in-hand)Myron Gordon, 1962P0 = E(1 − b) ÷ (ke − br), where b is retention and br = g; investors are risk-averse and discount distant dividends more heavily, so a rupee of dividend is worth more than a rupee retained — the bird-in-hand argument (Krishnan, Lintner); same conclusions as Walter for growth, normal and declining firms
Modigliani-Miller (irrelevance)1961In perfect markets with no taxes, no flotation costs and a fixed investment policy, value depends only on earning power; a dividend paid is offset by new shares issued (P0 = (D1 + P1)/(1 + ke)); investors make 'home-made dividends' by selling shares; the residual and clientele arguments follow
Residual theory—Pay out only what is left after financing all positive-NPV projects from retained earnings; dividend is a by-product of the investment decision
Tax preference, clientele, signalling, agencyBrennan; Miller and Modigliani; Bhattacharya, Miller and Rock; Easterbrook, JensenWhere dividends are taxed more than capital gains investors prefer retention; different investor groups prefer different payouts; a dividend change signals management's view of future earnings (the 'information content'); dividends reduce free cash flow and force managers to the capital market — an agency benefit
Lintner's behavioural modelJohn Lintner, 1956Firms set a long-run target payout and adjust dividends only partially and gradually toward it — dividend smoothing — because managers are reluctant to cut

Determination of dividend policy weighs the determinants: legal rules (under the Companies Act 2013, s. 123, dividend is paid only out of current or past profits after depreciation, or out of free reserves within limits; the Companies (Declaration and Payment of Dividend) Rules cap dividend from reserves; it must be paid within 30 days of declaration, unpaid amounts go to the Unpaid Dividend Account and after seven years to the Investor Education and Protection Fund; interim dividend is declared by the board, final dividend by shareholders in general meeting on the board's recommendation and cannot exceed it), liquidity (profit is not cash), the investment opportunities and growth stage of the firm, the stability of earnings, access to capital markets, cost of external finance, control considerations (new equity dilutes promoters), the tax position of shareholders (dividend has been taxed in shareholders' hands since dividend distribution tax was abolished in 2020, with TDS at 10% above 10,000 rupees), contractual restrictions in loan covenants, inflation and shareholder expectations. Policies are stable dividend per share (the most common — Lintner's finding), constant payout ratio (dividend varies with earnings), stable rupee dividend plus extra, and residual. Forms: cash dividend, stock dividend (bonus shares — capitalisation of reserves, no cash leaves, share price falls proportionately), stock split (more shares of lower face value, no accounting entry beyond face value), reverse split, share buy-back (s. 68 — up to 25% of paid-up capital and free reserves, taxed since October 2024 as dividend in the shareholder's hands), and dividend reinvestment plans. Stability of dividends is valued because it resolves uncertainty, meets the income needs of some investors and satisfies institutional investment rules.

Key takeaways

  • PV = FV/(1 + r)^n; an annuity's PV is A[1 − (1 + r)^−n]/r; a perpetuity is A/r and a growing one A1/(r − g); EAR = (1 + r/m)^m − 1; a bond sells at a discount when yield exceeds coupon; Gordon's P0 = D1/(ke − g) needs ke > g.
  • Systematic risk is measured by beta and is the only risk the market prices; Markowitz diversification works whenever correlation is below +1; CAPM: E(R) = Rf + β(Rm − Rf); APT is Ross's multi-factor no-arbitrage alternative; Sharpe uses total risk, Treynor and Jensen beta.
  • Payback ignores time value, ARR uses accounting profit, NPV measures wealth added and is the best criterion, PI is NPV's ratio form, IRR is the rate where NPV is zero and assumes reinvestment at itself; when they conflict for mutually exclusive projects NPV decides.
  • Risk is handled by the risk-adjusted discount rate, certainty equivalents (risk-free rate), sensitivity and scenario analysis, probability distributions of NPV, Monte Carlo simulation and decision trees leading to real options.
  • Walter and Gordon say payout matters — retain when r > ke, distribute when r < ke; MM (1961) say it is irrelevant in perfect markets; Lintner found firms smooth dividends toward a target; the Companies Act pays dividend only from profits, within 30 days, with unpaid sums going to the IEPF after seven years.

Practice questions (9)

Attempt each one before opening the answer. Every explanation names the tempting wrong option as well as the right one, because that is where marks are lost.

  1. The present value of a perpetuity paying 5,000 rupees a year when the required rate of return is 8% is:

    1. 62,500 rupees
    2. 40,000 rupees
    3. 5,400 rupees
    4. Infinite
    Show answer

    Answer: A — 62,500 rupees

    PV of a level perpetuity = A ÷ r = 5,000 ÷ 0.08 = 62,500. The stream is infinite but its present value is finite because distant payments are discounted toward zero. A growing perpetuity would use A1 ÷ (r − g).
  2. A bond will sell at a discount to its face value when:

    1. The required yield is higher than the coupon rate
    2. The required yield is lower than the coupon rate
    3. The coupon rate equals the required yield
    4. The bond is close to maturity
    Show answer

    Answer: A — The required yield is higher than the coupon rate

    Price is the present value of coupons and face value at the required yield; when the market demands more than the coupon pays, the price must fall below par to make up the difference. Yield below coupon gives a premium, yield equal to coupon gives par, and price converges to par as maturity nears.
  3. A share has just paid a dividend of 4 rupees, dividends are expected to grow at 5% a year and the required return is 13%. Its value by Gordon's constant-growth model is:

    1. 52.50 rupees
    2. 50 rupees
    3. 30.77 rupees
    4. 80 rupees
    Show answer

    Answer: A — 52.50 rupees

    P0 = D1/(ke − g) with D1 = 4 × 1.05 = 4.20, so 4.20 ÷ 0.08 = 52.50. Using D0 gives the 50 distractor; dividing by ke alone gives 30.77; dividing by g gives 80.
  4. According to the capital asset pricing model, if the risk-free rate is 6%, the expected market return is 14% and a security's beta is 1.5, its required return is:

    1. 18%
    2. 21%
    3. 12%
    4. 27%
    Show answer

    Answer: A — 18%

    E(R) = Rf + β(Rm − Rf) = 6 + 1.5 × 8 = 18%. Multiplying beta by Rm rather than by the market risk premium gives 21% plus 6 = 27, the common error; 12% would be a beta of 0.75.
  5. Which risk can be eliminated by holding a well-diversified portfolio?

    1. Unsystematic (firm-specific) risk
    2. Systematic (market) risk
    3. Interest-rate risk
    4. Inflation risk
    Show answer

    Answer: A — Unsystematic (firm-specific) risk

    Firm-specific events — a strike, a product recall — average out across many holdings, so the market does not reward bearing them. Interest-rate and inflation risks affect all securities and are components of systematic risk, which beta measures and CAPM prices.
  6. A project costs 1,00,000 rupees and yields 40,000 rupees a year for four years. At a 10% cost of capital (four-year annuity factor 3.170), its net present value is:

    1. 26,800 rupees
    2. 60,000 rupees
    3. 1,26,800 rupees
    4. −73,200 rupees
    Show answer

    Answer: A — 26,800 rupees

    PV of inflows = 40,000 × 3.170 = 1,26,800; NPV = 1,26,800 − 1,00,000 = 26,800, positive, so accept. Sixty thousand is the undiscounted surplus; 1,26,800 is the gross PV before deducting the outlay.
  7. When NPV and IRR give conflicting rankings for two mutually exclusive projects, the NPV ranking is preferred because NPV:

    1. Measures the absolute addition to shareholder wealth and assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital
    2. Is expressed as a percentage that is easy to compare
    3. Does not require a discount rate
    4. Always favours the project with the shorter payback
    Show answer

    Answer: A — Measures the absolute addition to shareholder wealth and assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital

    IRR assumes intermediate cash flows are reinvested at the IRR itself, which flatters front-loaded projects, and it can mis-rank projects of different scale or life. NPV is additive, uses the realistic reinvestment rate and measures value in rupees; the percentage form and the absence of a discount rate describe IRR, not NPV.
  8. The certainty-equivalent approach to project risk adjusts:

    1. The cash flows downward by a coefficient and discounts them at the risk-free rate
    2. The discount rate upward by a risk premium
    3. One input variable at a time to test sensitivity
    4. The payback period downward
    Show answer

    Answer: A — The cash flows downward by a coefficient and discounts them at the risk-free rate

    Certainty equivalents convert risky flows to their riskless equivalents, so time and risk are treated separately; the risk-adjusted discount rate instead loads the risk into the rate, compounding the penalty over time. Changing one variable at a time is sensitivity analysis.
  9. According to Walter's model, a growth firm whose return on retained earnings exceeds its cost of equity (r > ke) should have a dividend payout ratio of:

    1. Zero — retain all earnings
    2. 100% — distribute all earnings
    3. 50% — the balanced policy
    4. Any ratio — payout is irrelevant
    Show answer

    Answer: A — Zero — retain all earnings

    In P = [D + (r/ke)(E − D)]/ke, when r > ke every retained rupee adds more value than it costs, so value is maximised at zero payout; a declining firm (r < ke) should pay out everything, and a normal firm (r = ke) is indifferent. Irrelevance for all firms is Modigliani and Miller's position.